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Shouldn't this be less than equal to (<=) because we are talking about previous operator?  So, for t1: 0<= t1 <= t0 and for t0 : t0>0

Exam paper: question 9)(d)

https://es.cs.uni-kl.de/teaching/vrs/exams/2017.08.29.vrs/2017.08.29.vrs.solutions.pdf

in * TF "Vis. and Sci. Comp." by (870 points)

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No, we are just talking about GFa in the final step since we have replaced GF PWX a by the equivalent formula GFa first.
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If in the exam I don't replace GF PWX a by GF a and write LO2 form for GF PWXa will it be accepted?
Sure, as it will also be correct.

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