First question: it is an implication since (G p) evaluated at time t0 becomes ∀t1. (t0≤t1 → p[t1]). You can see that as follows: You know that (G p) = ¬(F ¬p) and you know that F p is equivalent to ∃t1. t0≤t1 ∧ p[t1]. Hence, Gp is equivalent to ¬∃t1. t0≤t1 ∧ ¬p[t1] which is equivalent to ∀t1. ¬(t0≤t1 ∧ ¬p[t1]), and that in turn is equivalent to ∀t1. ¬t0≤t1 ⋁ p[t1] which is the formulation above.
Second question: There is indeed an algorithm which translates any LO1 formula to LTL. You don't need that however in these exam questions. Instead, we usually hide some LTL formula behind it, so that you should read what is expressed there and try to say the same in LTL. You typically find the direct semantics of an LTL formula there.
Third question: There is currently no teaching tool for translating LO1 to LTL. The converse can be done with the teaching tool
https://es.cs.uni-kl.de/tools/teaching/TemporalLogicProver.html when you select the option "translate given LTL formula to LO1".
Fourth question: yes, the translation from LTL to LO2 is the same as the translation from LTL to LO1. There is never a need for a second order quantification when we translate LTL to LO1. In principle, you could translate LTL to omega-automata which could then be translated to LO2, and then try to reduce that to LO1. However, that would be overly complicated.